A CALL FOR SPIRITUAL ENLIGHTENMENT (IN DEFENSE OF JW BELIEFS)

ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS ON JEHOVAH’S WITNESSES

Note: Please see this link for additional study and explanations regarding the subject matter that were discussing.

http://searchforbibletruthsscriptureindex.blogspot.com/

http://defendingjehovahswitnesses.blogspot.com/

Question: If the Holy Spirit is God’s impersonal active force, why does he directly speak and refer to himself as “I” and “me” in Acts 13:2? 

Answer: Although it was the word of Jehovah it should not be concluded that the holy spirit is Jehovah. What the writer spoken of is that through the holy spirit (the active force of God) they have heard the voice of Jehovah. Remember, the holy spirit is the one use by God to perform his will (Psalms 104:30). Notice in the verse that if God sends his spirit the things are created thus he is using his spirit which is apart from himself to perform his will. Even in Genesis 1:2 it states that the spirit of God is not God himself which goes fro and tro above the waters. So the writer must be thinking that it was the holy spirit of God which God used to let him spoke to the early apostles. Jesus spoke of the holy spirit as “helper” and he said this helper will “teach”, “witness”, “speak” and “listen” (John 14:16, 17, 26; 15:26 16:13). It is common in the Scriptures about describing something as being a person. For example, wisdom is said to have “children” (Luke 7:35). The sin and death were called as being “kings” (Romans 5:14, 21). Though there are texts that says holy spirit is speaking, the other texts explains that it was done through angels or persons (Acts 4:24, 25; 28:25; Mat. 10:19, 20; compare Acts 20:23 with 21:10, 11). In 1 John 5:6 – 8, it is not only the spirit that witness but also the “blood and water”. Therefore, there is no word in the texts for the holy spirit that it says it is a person.      

Question: The NWT translates the Greek words “ego eimi” as “I am” every time it appears (Jn 6:34, 6:41, 8:24, 13:19, 15:5, etc.), except in Jn 8:58 where it is translated as “I have been”. What is the reason for the inconsistency in this translation? If “ego eimi” was translated in Jn 8:58 the same way it is translated in every other verse in which it appears, how would Jn 8:58 read? 

Answer: There is no inconsistency about the translation of the NWT. What the translators did is just they exposed the explicit truth in the Bible. If you will read verse 56 to 57, Jesus was saying that he existed before Abraham because Abraham saw him and had enjoyed. The Pharisees asked him that he was not even 50 years old yet he saw Abraham. Jesus answered the question of them and explained what he was saying by saying that before Abraham was [existed] he was [existed]. The word “I am” that is used in the sentence denotes of existing as himself and no other or simply the word “I am” means “I exist as who I am.” Remember the proving of Rene Descartes in his thesis saying “I think, therefore I am.” He explained that just as he thinks therefore, he exists.

Question: In Rev 22:12-13, Jesus Christ, the one who is “coming quickly”, says of himself, ” I am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end”. In Rev 1:17-18, Jesus, the one who “became dead, but, look! I am living forever and ever”, refers to himself as the first and the last. Rev 21:6, in speaking of God, says, “…I am the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and the end …”. God is also referred to as the “first” and the “last” in Isa 44:6 and Isa 48:12. How can this be since by definition of these words there can only be one first and one last? 

Answer: First Jesus is never the Alpha and Omega. It only applies to Jehovah. Jesus can be the first as he is the first created being of God (Proverbs 8:22, 23; 30; Colossians 1:15; John 1:3; Revelation 3:14 [“the beginning of the creation of God”, see this interlinear (http://interlinearbible.org/revelation/3-14.htm ) and the first in all things (Colossians 1:18) and the “last” who will give back the authority to God, his Father (1 Corinthians 15:24 – 28). Just as there are some people in the Bible that speaks as they are saviors of men [like Othniel in Judges 3:9 and among others]but it must not to conclude that they are Jehovah; that Nabucodonosor was even called the king of all kings in Daniel 2:37 but he was not to conclude that he was Jesus; that the Christians are also called “light of the nations” (Matthew 5:14; Acts 13:47) but they are not Jesus who is called the “light of the nations” (John 8:12). Also it refers to spiritual Israel of God or the Christians (Isaiah 49:6; see verse 3).

Many people who believe in Trinity say that Revelation 22:12, 13 apply to Jesus but notice Revelation 21:5, 6, to whom the speaker refers to? It is none other than to Jehovah God since he is described as the one who sits on the throne and that the one who sits on the throne is the Alpha and Omega as stated in verse 6. If you can notice God is the one who sits on the throne in Revelation 7:10 in which Jesus was identified as the Lamb who is separated with God (compare also Revelation 3:21).

The Alpha and Omega
Revelation 1:8 “I am the Al´pha and the O•me´ga,” says Jehovah God, “the One who is and who was and who is coming, the Almighty.”
This is the first among its three occurrences in Revelation in which Jehovah speaks from heaven. (See Revelation 21:5 – 8; 22:12 – 15.) It was clear and known to the first century Christians that Alpha and Omega are the first and two letters of the Greek alphabet. The way Jehovah calls himself using these two Greek letters only indicates that there is no God who is almighty who existed before him and that no God who is almighty will exist after him. He will resolve in victory the issue of being the Diety. He will be vindicated forever as the only true God who is Almighty and the Highest Sovereign to all creations.
Revelation 21:6,7 states, “6And he said to me: “They have come to pass! I am the Al´pha and the O•me´ga, the beginning and the end. To anyone thirsting I will give from the fountain of the water of life free. 7Anyone conquering will inherit these things, and I shall be his God and he will be my son.

Notice that those who will conquer will become God’s son yet Jesus called those who will be with him in heaven as “his brothers” and not as “his sons” thus it is clear that the one speaking is the Heavenly Father of Jesus none other than Jehovah. (Matthew 25:40; compare Hebrews 2:10 – 12). The expressions of “I am coming quickly” in Revelation 22:12 does not always apply to Jesus since Jehovah is also called “coming” to give his judgments (Compare Isaiah 26:21). Malachi 3: 1 – 6 states of both the coming of Jehovah and his messenger of the covenant for the judgment.

Question: Jn 1:3 says that Jesus created “all things”, but in Isa 44:24, God says that he “by myself” created the heavens and the earth and asks the question “Who was with me?” when the heavens and the earth were created. How can this be since if Jesus was created by God, then he would have been with God when everything else was created?

Answer:  Revelation 3:14 states that Jesus was the beginning of creation of God and that he was founded or made by God (Proverbs 8:22, 23) and that he was the firstborn of all creation (1 Colossians 1:15). When God told he created all by himself the heaven and earth, what he is saying is that all the powers, thinking and authority were subject by himself alone and not with anyone else. The power, spirit and wisdom which he gave to Jesus was of course came from him and so he can rightly say that all by himself he made the heavens and the earth and only through him he gave authority, wisdom and power to Jesus to create all things along with him (Proverbs 8:30). If I say, “I built this good system of government by myself”, would it mean that I alone built the good system of government I have planned or I have used some people to help me doing in all my plans and that subject to my authority and power all things happened? If someone asked me as “Who built this house?” Don’t I have the right to say, “I built it by myself” if all the authority, power and will came from myself? Would it mean I have not used anyone to build the house I have? No. It only means that subject to my own will, effort, money, design, resources and authority the house was built through myself only and not with anyone else.   

Question: Col 1:16, in talking about Jesus, says that “… All [other] things have been created through him and FOR HIM”. If Jesus was Michael the Archangel at the time of creation, would an angel have created all things for himself? Isa 43:7 says God created “everyone … for my OWN glory…”.

Answer:  Jesus is the heir of all things in heaven and on earth (Hebrews 1:2; John 16:15; Psalms 2:8). God gives authority to Jesus to become heir of all things (Matthew 28:18). Jesus is the one described in Daniel 7:13, 14 who is coming before the Ancient Days [Jehovah] who sits on the throne in whom all rulerships were given to Jesus.

See the blogs here about Jesus as Michael the Archangel:

http://fromthesunrising.wordpress.com/2010/12/08/jesus-as-michael-the-archangel/

Question: The Watchtower Society teaches that the 144,000 of Rev 7:4 is to be taken literally. If chapter 7 of Revelation is to be taken literally, where then does the Bible say that the 144,000 will come from? (See Rev 7:5- 8). 

Answer: In Revelation 20:4 – 6 it state that they are the first resurrected ones who will become kings and priests of God together with Jesus in heaven. They are numbered as 144,000 (Revelation 7:4 – 8). Are these literal Jews who came from Israel? No. Revelation 14: 1 – 5 states they were bought from earth and “bought from humanity” (v. 3, 4) or “bought from all tribes, languages and nations” to become priests of God and kings over the earth (Revelation 5:9, 10). Are these literal virgins? No. Peter is one of the apostles of Jesus Christ who will live on heaven yet he has a wife (1 Corinthians 9:5; Matthew 8:14; John 1:42). Is this the church of God which is composed of Christians? No. Since these 144, 000 will become kings over the earth. To whom they will rule if all Christians are kings in heaven? Why would the 144,000 become kings over the earth? 1 Corinthians 6:2 and Revelation 20:4, 6 state they will have to judge the earth for 1000 years in the millennial reign of Jesus.

Question: If the soul is the body, why does Jesus make a distinction between the body and the soul in Mt 10:28?

Answer:  It is because the “soul” also means “life” (see Greek-English Interlinear of Matthew 16:25 (http://interlinearbible.org/matthew/16-25.htm; Matthew 16:26 (http://interlinearbible.org/matthew/16-26.htm); John 10:15, 17(http://interlinearbible.org/john/10-15.htmhttp://interlinearbible.org/john/10-17.htm)

Question: The NWT translates Jn 1:1 as “… and the Word was WITH God, and the Word was a god”. How can the Word (Jesus) be “a god” if God says in Deut 32:39, “See now that I-I am he, and there are NO gods together WITH me …”? 

Answer: It is true that there are no gods together with him. But the gods he is mentioning are the ones who cannot compare to him. Thus, what he is saying is that there are no gods like him who are with him. There are no gods who are equivalent to himself and who are together with him. He is the God alone and no one could ever match him. If we would just take the said verse in literal interpretations it would contradict the verses such as in Deuteronomy 10:17; Psalms 95:3; 97:9 and 1 Corinthians 8:5). Therefore, it must appropriate to take the meaning of it in its deeper sense of interpretation.

Question: Jesus Christ is referred to as “Mighty God” in Isa 9:6 (“For there has been a child born to us, there has been a son given to us … And his name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God …”). Jehovah is referred to as “Mighty God” in Isa 10:20-21. How can this be if there is only one God (1Cor 8:4, Isa 43:10, 44:6)? 

Answer: Just as there are some people in the Bible that speaks as they are saviors of men [like Othniel in Judges 3:9 and among others]but it must not to conclude that they are Jehovah; that Nabucodonosor was even called the king of all kings in Daniel 2:37 but he was not to conclude that he was Jesus; that the Christians are also called “light of the nations” (Matthew 5:14; Acts 13:47) but they are not Jesus who is called the “light of the nations” (John 8:12). Also it refers to spiritual Israel of God or the Christians (Isaiah 49:6; see verse 3).

Question: If Jesus was executed on a torture stake, with both hands together over his head, why does Jn 20:25 say “…Unless I see in his hands the print of the nailS …”, indicating that there was more than one nail used for his hands? 

Answers: see this link for the answer: (http://www.watchtower.org/e/200604a/article_01.htm     

 http://defendingthenwt.blogspot.com/2009/09/nwt_7843.html

http://www.watchtower.org/e/bh/appendix_05.htm

http://www.jehovah.to/xlation/mi.html (see the explanation on this matter on its content)

Question: Jesus uses the phrase “Truly I say to you, …” over 50 times in the Bible. In the NWT, the comma is placed after the word “you” every time except in Lk 23:43, where the comma is placed after the word “today”. Why is the comma placed after “today” instead of after “you” in this verse? If the translation of this phrase in Lk 23:43 was consistent with the translation of this phrase in all the other verses in which it appears (see concordance), and the comma was placed after the word “you”, how would it read? 

Answer: It is because there is no person yet who is resurrected as spiritual being after Jesus died. The resurrection only takes place on the presence of Jesus as stated in 1 Corinthians 15:23 in relation to its fulfillment time in Revelation 6:9 – 11. Those who will be in heaven will be anointed by the will of God through the holy spirit and baptism. Thus, the proper rendering of comma should be placed after the word “today” indicating that Jesus is promising his words on the time he was saying it to the one who was also nailed and that he will be in the coming paradise earth by the time of resurrection of those who will have earthly hope. Jesus words saying that the one nailed who will be with him does not indicates that they would be present together at the same place or that the paradise is in heaven. One proof of showing together with or present with but not at the same place is in John 8:16, 29 where God [Jehovah] is with Jesus yet Jehovah is in heaven while Jesus was on earth by that time. [Compare Matthew 6:9 and 7:11 where Jesus said his Father was in heaven]  

Question: The NWT translates the Greek word “esti” as “is” in almost every instance in the New Testament (Mt 26:18, 38, Mk 14:44, Lk 22:38, etc.). See Greek-English Interlinear. Why does the NWT translate this Greek word as “means” in Mt 26:26-28, Mk 14:22-24, and Lk 22:19? Why the inconsistency in the translation of the word “esti”? If the NWT was consistent and translated the Greek word “esti” as “is” in these verses, what would these verses say?

Answer: For advance reading see this link about the word “was” or “meant” [http://www.jehovah.to/xlation/mi.html] and please see this link for the answer – (http://defendingthenwt.blogspot.com/2009/09/nwt_3365.html and http://onlytruegod.org/defense/estin.htm)

Question: In Jn 20:28, Thomas refers to Jesus in Greek as “Ho kyrios moy kai ho theos moy”. This translates literally as “the Lord of me and THE God of me”. Why does Jesus, in Jn 20:29, affirm Thomas for having come to this realization? If Jesus really wasn’t the Lord and THE God of Thomas, why didn’t Jesus correct him for making either a false assumption or a blasphemous statement? 

Answer: It is not wrong if Jesus was called “God” if Thomas had thought this. This is in conformity with quote of Jesus in Psalms in which people with power, judges, were called as “gods”. (John 10:34; 35, RS; Psalms 82:1 – 6). Jesus has greater duty compare with those called gods. Because of special position of Jesus in relation to Jehovah, he was called “the begotten god” in John 1:18 (NW; see also The Emphasized Bible by Rotherham and The Bible in Living English by Byington.) Jesus was also prophesied as “Mighty God” but never as “Almighty God”. All of these are in line with the entitlement of Jesus as “a god”, or “divine,” in John 1:1 (NW, The Bible – An American Translation). The contexts help us to have right knowing to this thing. When Jesus was near of his death, Thomas heard the prayer of Jesus as he called his Father as the “only true God” (John 17:3, RS). After Jesus was resurrected, he gave message to his apostles including Thomas, in which Jesus said “Do not hold me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to my brethren and say to them, I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.” (John 20:17, RS). After the words of Thomas were stated when he saw and touched the resurrected Jesus Christ, this is what apostle John said: “But these have been written in order that you may believe that Jesus is the Messiah, the Son of God, and that through your faith in him you may have life.” (TEV, italics and underlined for emphasis) Therefore, if there is someone who will decide with the spoken words of Thomas that Jesus is the “only true God” or that Jesus is the “God Son” of the Trinity, he has to examine again the words of Jesus in verse 17 and the clear conclusion of apostle John in verse 31. (Compare also the words of Jesus Revelation 3:12; John 12:49, 50; 14:24; 15:15 and Hebrew 9:24). Also in Matthew 26:39, Jesus prayed to his Father in heaven to take away the cup [his suffering] but not according in his own will but of his Father’s will. If they are not separated, his prayers would be worthless and was praying to himself and therefore it cannot mean that his will is different from the Father’s will. But we should also note that Thomas may be referring to both Jesus and God (the Father) thus when he addressed Jesus as his Lord he might also addressed the Father as his God by that time. We should know also the real thought of the speaker and not as to how the definite article is being referred to the person speaking to. See also this link about this subject matter.

http://www.jehovah.to/xlation/int.html

Question: If Christ will not have a visible return to earth, then how will he be seen by “ALL the tribes of the earth” (Mt 24:30) and by “EVERY eye” (Rev 1:7) when he returns?

Answer: The answer to this is using logical thinking. If Armageddon will come and if Jesus will return in America how would the people be able to see him in eastern part of the world? How come those who pierced him will see his coming when they are dead already? Only after Armageddon the resurrection for those who have earthly hope will happen. The wicked must be wiped out first. Thus, those who pierced him means it is not in literal but symbolical which means those who have acted against his name and in his Father’s name will also see his coming through perceiving that the time for God to act against all the wicked has come and the salvation for God’s people has also come. These will be perceived and know by all the people of earth. All will feel the presence of Jesus on his return on the great day of Jehovah. [Compare Ecclesiastes 1:4; Psalms 104:5; Proverbs 2:21, 22]

Question: If the Holy Spirit is God’s impersonal active force, how could he: Be referred to as “he” and “him” in Jn 16:7-8 and Jn 16:13-14; Bear witness – Jn 15:26; Feel hurt – Isa 63:10; Be blasphemed against – Mk 3:29; Say things – Ezek 3:24, Acts 8:29, 10:19, 11:12, 21:11, Heb10:15-17, Rev 2:7; Desire – Gal 5:17; Be outraged – Heb 10:29; Search -1Cor 2:10; Comfort – Acts 9:31; Be loved – Rom 15:30 ; Be lied to and be God – Acts 5:3-4?

Answer: (See the first explanation about spirit of God above and this link: Is Acts 5:3, 4 – Lied to the Holy Spirit…lied to God?

Acts 8:29 – “The spirit SAID to Philip…”

Question: What is the meaning of Rev 14:9-11, which says, “… If anyone worships the wild beast … he shall be tormented with fire and sulphur … And the smoke of their torment ascends forever and ever …”. Where could “anyone” be “tormented … forever and ever”?

Answer: Fire and sulphur is used in the Bible as a symbol for destruction just as stated in Isaiah 34:9, 10 and Judas 7. Here the places were destroyed by literal fire yet the fire does not exist anymore. Notice Jesus was also been placed in Hades which is translated by some Bible versions as hell (Acts 2:31) and this Hades was also used by Jesus in his illustration to a rich man who is suffering from literal fire which is described as Hades. (Luke 16:23 – 24) yet this Hades was described in Revelation 20:13, 14 that will give out its dead (those who died before) thus it means they will be resurrected just as Jesus was raised from the dead in Hades. Also in Job 14:13, Job prayed to let him be in “Sheol” (AS, RS, NE, JB, NW) or “hell” (Challoner-Douay Version).

[http://www.watchtower.org/e/20040401/article_02.htm]

http://fromthesunrising.wordpress.com/2010/10/28/the-truth-about-soul-and-hell/

Question: Jn 1:3 says in reference to Christ, “All things came into existence through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence”. How could Christ have been a created being if ALL things came into existence through him? If Jesus was a created being, then according to Jn 1:3, Jesus would have had to create himself.

Answer: Yes all things in the universe were created through Jesus (John 1:3; Colossians 1:16; Hebrews 1:2) but it does not include Jehovah, for Jehovah is the Creator of all which includes Jesus (see the Revelation 3:14 and its Greek-English Interlinear here – http://interlinearbible.org/revelation/3-14.htm). The Greek word used was “arche” which has a meaning of “beginning” just it also appeared in John 1:1. Other translations use to denote the word “arche” in Revelation 3:14 as “the Ruler” or “the Head” and ignoring the basic meaning as “beginning” which means literally as “initial”, “start” or “first”. Thus, when forcing the basic meaning of the word “arche”, one cannot reject the meaning of it as “beginning” or “start” so it has a very grand proof that Jesus is the first or the start of creation of Jehovah which in conformity with Proverbs 8:22, 23. Jesus is the co-creator of Jehovah as he is the master worker describe in Proverbs 8:30. One thing, Jehovah is the God of Jesus as described in Psalms 45:6, 7 which has a cross reference in Hebrew 1:8, 9. This is conformity with the verses in Psalms 2:6 – 8 and 1 Corinthians 15:24 – 28. Notice the italicized and underlined words in Romans 8:34, “who is the one who condemns? Christ Jesus is He who died, yes, rather who was raised, who is at the right hand of God, who also intercedes for us.”

For explanations of the translation of Revelation 3:14 in NWT please see this link (http://defendingthenwt.blogspot.com/2009/09/nwt_1692.html)

Question: Is there really everlasting punishment for the wicked as stated in Matthew 25:46 in KJV?

Answer: Matthew 25:46 “And these shall go away into everlasting punishment: but the righteous into life eternal.”

The Greek word use for the translation of punishment in KJV is “kolasin” but kolasin has a literal meaning of “cut-off”. The Emphatic Diaglott [http://lookhigher.net/englishbibles/theemphaticdiaglott/matthew/25.html] can be read as “cutting-off” instead of “punishment”- (Mat 25:46 “And shall go away these into a cutting-off age-lasting; the and just ones into life age-lasting.”) A footnote states that kolasin was taken from the word kolazoo which means 1. Cutting-off; like cutting of branches of a tree, pruning. 2. Control, repression … 3.  castigation, punishment. The separation of one from life, or society, or controlling, refers to punishment – therefore from here the meaning shows the third deep usage of word. The first meaning is the one which should be followed since it is in conformity with the second phrase of the sentence. The righteous will go to life, the wicked into cutting-off from life, or death. [Compare 2 Thessalonians 1:9, “These very ones will undergo the judicial punishment of everlasting destruction from before the Lord and from the glory of his strength.” (http://interlinearbible.org/2_thessalonians/1-9.htm] Please see also the real definition of the Greek word “olethros” which is translated as “destruction” in this interlinear link which is used in the said verse (http://strongsnumbers.com/greek/3639.htm).

Question: If the spirit of a man has no existence apart from the body, why does Stephen just before his death in Acts 7:59, pray to Jesus to “receive my spirit”? How could Jesus receive Stephen’s spirit if a man’s spirit ceases to exist when the body dies? 

Answer: The word “spirit” does not refer to being something in the body that has personality. It is a force of life that sustains one’s life (Read Psalms 104:29) and the spirit is subject to die (Read Psalms 146:4). In Ecclesiastes 12:7 it states, “Then the dust returns to the earth just as it happened to be and the spirit itself returns to the [true] God who gave it.” The Hebrew word used to translate as spirit is “ruach” which is not the same with the Greek word “nephesh” for the word “soul”. Ecclesiastes 12:7 does not mean there is a literal spirit that travelling towards the presence of God, but rather the hope of one in resurrection depends unto God. In the same words, we can say that if the buyer of the lot would not give required payment for the purchased lot, the lot will be returned to the owner. NASB uses “force of life”.

Ecclesiastes 3:19 For there is an eventuality as respects the sons of mankind and an eventuality as respects the beast, and they have the same eventuality. As the one dies, so the other dies; and they all have but one spirit, so that there is no superiority of the man over the beast, for everything is vanity.

Luke 23: 46 And Jesus called with a loud voice and said: “Father, into your hands I entrust my spirit.” When he had said this, he expired.

The Greek word used to translate as “spirit” is “pneuma”. When the spirit goes out from Jesus he did not ascend into heaven right after he died. Only after three days he was resurrected. And just like what Acts 1:3, 9 shows, it had passed 40 days before he ascended into heaven. So what was Jesus meant when he said it before he died? He was saying that after he died, his hope for resurrection depends in the hands of God. When Stephen prayed to let his spirit receive by Jesus, he does not mean to himself that Jesus is God [see Ecc. 2:7; Romans 8:34] but rather Jesus is the one who will be used by Jehovah God in resurrecting those people with hope [see John 5:25, 28, 29; John 11:25; John 5:22]. See this link below about explanation of “spirit” and “soul”. (“Soul” and “Spirit”—What Do These Terms Really Mean?)

Question: If the great crowd is to have everlasting life on paradise EARTH, why does 1Thess 4:17 say, “…we the living who are surviving will, together with them, be caught away in clouds to MEET THE LORD IN THE AIR; and thus we shall always be with the Lord”?

Answer: 1 Thessalonians 4:17 could only be applied to those remnants of the 144, 000 who are still alive on earth when the Great Tribulation comes. Before Armageddon comes they will die and be resurrected in an instant and will ascend to heaven to rule with Christ. (Compare Revelation 5:9, 10 and Revelation 14: 1-4 and Revelation 20:6) Notice they were bought from humanity and from the earth – from different tribes and languages numbering 144, 000 and they will rule over the earth together with Christ for 1000 years. (Compare Psalms 37:9-11, 29; Proverbs 2;21, 22; Matthew 5:5 *If it is not stated in your Bible versions that righteous will live forever on earth please see the Interlinear for these verses. http://interlinearbible.org/matthew/5-5.htm

Question: If there are 144,000 spirit anointed people who have a heavenly hope, and a great crowd of people who have another hope of everlasting life on paradise earth, why does Paul say that there is only ONE hope (Eph 4:4), instead of two?

Answer: Yes there is only one hope and that hope is to have everlasting life either in heaven or on earth.See this link for additional explanation of this subject matter (http://fromthesunrising.wordpress.com/2011/05/30/will-all-the-righteous-people-go-to-heaven/)

Question: Heb 9:28, speaking of Christ, says “… and the second time he appears…” How can Christ APPEAR a second time if he will not have a visible return to earth?

Answer: This is also in line with Revelation 1:7. What does “clouds” refers to? That is of being unseen. When an airplane is in the midst of thick clouds or above the clouds, it will not be seen by the people in the land, but they may hear the sounds of the airplane’s engine. Jehovah told to Moses that he comes in the midst of clouds. Moses did not see Jehovah, but that cloud suggests the unseen presence of Jehovah in the eyes of the sons of Israel. (Exodus 19:9; look also Leviticus 16:2; Numbers 11:25.) See also Genesis 46:4 which states that Jehovah will come down in Egypt but he did not come down literally but only his unseen presence was perceived by the Israel and Egypt. (Compare also John 8:16; 29; 16:32 which states by Jesus that Jehovah is with him when he was on earth but Jehovah is not literally beside with Jesus. He is with Jesus only in his unseen presence with Jesus because Jehovah is in heaven. (Compare Psalms 11:4 and Proverbs 15:3)
Question: In Rev 19:1, where does it say that the “great crowd” will be?
If Christians are persecuted for the sake of Jehovah’s name, why did Christ tell the first Christians that they would be persecuted for the sake of his (Jesus’) name instead of Jehovah’s (Mt 24:9, Mk 13:13, Lk 21:12, 17, Jn 15:21, and Acts 9:16)?

Answer: It is because Jesus’ name was to be preached by the early Christians and they were preaching that through him [as stated also by Jesus], salvation and forgiveness of sins will be possible and that they will have a close relationship with God only through Jesus’ name. (Hebrew 2:10; Acts 4:12; Ephesians 1:7; Hebrews 9:22, 28; John 14:6) The name of God was known to them by that time since Jesus also proclaimed the name of his Father to his apostles (John 17:6, 26) and the Jews are not questioning the name of God but they are questioning of Jesus as if he is really the Son of God and that through him salvation and forgiveness of sins is possible. Most Jews did not believe that Jesus is the Messiah that is why those early Christians who were preaching for the sake of Jesus’ name were persecuted by those unbelievers of Christ. How come it is still connected on these days? Since many people in the Christendom as well as those who do not believe with the Jehovah’s Witnesses particularly on their Biblical doctrines just like Jesus is also Michael the Archangel (one of the claims of JW as the other NAME of Jesus in his preexistence and post-existence as human which rejects by many religions) as well as of not being part of the world, therefore many JW are persecuted by the people. The fact that Jesus name means “Jehovah is Salvation” [God is Salvation] according to some scholars as it was in the context clue of Matthew 1:21 which includes not only the Jews but also the Gentiles indicates that those who persecutes Christians because of Jesus Christ’s name also profane God’s name and since Jehovah’s salvation is through Jesus then it is also true that not accepting Jehovah is the same as not accepting Jesus as savior and as appointed by God and thus Christians who are persecuted in Jehovah’s name also persecuted in Jesus’ name (compare Matthew 25:40) since Jesus carries the name of God and that through him Jehovah will execute His will in His appointed time.

Question: In Col 1:15-17, the NWT inserts the word “other” 4 times even though it is not in the original Greek (see Gr-Engl interlinear). Why is the word “other” inserted? How would these verses read if the word “other” had not been inserted?

Answer: Please read the following links: 

http://defendingthenwt.blogspot.com/2010/11/adding-other-col-116-20-acts-1036-rom.html

http://fromthesunrising.wordpress.com/2010/09/14/the-truth-in-colossians-11617/

Question: In Phil 2:9, the NWT inserts the word “other”, even though it doesn’t appear in the original Greek (see Gr-Engl Interlinear). What is the reason for inserting this word? Is the word “Jehovah” a name? See Ex 6:3, Ps 83:18, and Isa 42:8. How would the verse read if the word “other” had not been inserted? What does scripture say about adding words to the Bible? See Prov 30:5-6.

Answer: See this link for the same explanation of the word “other” (http://defendingthenwt.blogspot.com/2009/09/nwt-martin.html)The name of God is excluded with the names in heaven in which Jesus name is above. It is also in the context that God exalted Jesus and that God gave him a name which is above the [other] names in heaven. The giver is not the same with the receiver (compare Revelation 1:1).

Question: In 2Pet 1:1, the NWT inserts the word “the”. Why is it inserted? How would the verse read if the word “the” was not inserted? What does scripture say about adding words to the Bible? (See Prov 30:5-6).

Answer: Please read the link for the answer on this subject.

http://defendingthenwt.blogspot.com/2010/11/2-peter-11-and-titus-213-sharps-rule.html

Question: In the sermon on the mount, when Jesus was addressing the “great crowd” (Lk 6:17), why did he tell them in Lk 6:22-23, “…your reward is great in heaven …”?

Answer:  Jesus was explaining to his disciples that the reward of them was great in heaven. This should not be meant as they are all going to heaven and will be rewarded in heaven. Remember Jesus also spoke in Matthew 5:5 that meek people will inherit the earth (see Greek-English Interlinear and also Proverbs 2:21, 22 and Psalms 37: 9 – 11, 29; see Interlinear). Notice when Jesus said to his disciples to store up riches in heaven than to store up riches on earth (Matthew 6:20). He did not mean that his disciples should literally store up riches in heaven because they are still human. What Jesus meant was his disciples should be focus in spiritual things rather than material things. Jesus is not literally saying to store up riches in heaven because it is impossible for human to do so. What he wants from his disciples is to be spiritually minded than being materialistic people. Therefore, when Jesus spoke with the great crowd that their reward would be great in heaven it doesn’t mean that they will be going in heaven to receive their reward. Instead, they will receive rewards from heaven through the appointed son of Jehovah none other than Jesus Christ. What Jesus is saying is that their reward is from heaven or simply their reward comes from the Father and through himself who are both in heaven. 

Question: In Mt 1:23, who is Matthew referring to here that has been given the name which means “With Us Is God”?

Answer:   Matthew 1:23 “Look! The virgin will become pregnant and will give birth to a son, and they will call his name Im·man´u·el,” which means, when translated, “With Us Is God.”

They used it as proof text that Jehovah was with those persons before literally. However, we can find many biblical texts that show Jehovah is with his people but not literally. I suggest you see these verses that show Jehovah is with his people before – Isaiah 8:10; Deuteronomy 20:1 and Psalms 46:7, 11.

Question: In Rev 14:13, how can the dead be “happy” and find “rest” if there is no conscious awareness after death?

Answer: Those people who will die in union with Christ are happy in the sense that they have hope for resurrection. It says happy are those dead who will die in union with Christ. It is in a perfect tense signifying happy are those who will die in union with Christ for they will have hope from God. It means even they die they are considered as happy or lucky person for they have hope in God. (Compare Romans 6:21, 22, 23; Notice that there are only two ends – death and life. See also Romans 8:6) See this interlinear (http://interlinearbible.org/revelation/14-13.htm)

Question: If Jesus was executed on a torture stake, with both hands together over his head, instead of on a cross with both hands outstretched, why does Mt 27:37 say that the sign “This is Jesus the King of the Jews” was “posted above his HEAD” instead of being posted above his hands? How could it have been posted above his head if his arms were stretched out over his head?

Answer: A quote from blogspot about torture stake and not cross was used to Jesus:

Anonymous said…

Matt13weedhacker

JUSTIN MARTYR, (110 to 165 C.E.): “The Teacher of us [in] these things, and [who] was born for this [very] purpose was Jesus Christ, [who] was hung upon a torture stake by Pontius Pilate, [who] came to be the Procurator in Judea upon [the] times of Tiberius Caesar, [this one] we have learned [to be] a son of the actual-real God and hold him (ἐν δευτέρᾳ χώρᾳ) in second place, [and the] prophetic spirit (ἐν τρίτῃ τάξει) in third rank, therefore, after [this] discourse [we shall] aid and assit [in] showing [certain] proof [of this].” A Smoother Paraphrase Translation of Ap. 1, 13, – by Matt13weedhacker.

For viewing of this comment please see this link http://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com/2009/09/history-of-christian-trinity-hist-part_14.html

See also this link: http://www.jehovah.to/exe/translation/cross.htm

http://www.watchtower.org/e/bh/appendix_05.htm

Question: In Lk 4:12, the NWT translates “kyrios” (Gr-lord) as “Jehovah”, which makes the verse read “… ‘You shall not put Jehovah your God to the test.'” See Gr-Engl Interlinear. Why is kyrios translated as “Jehovah” in this verse? Was the devil, in Lk 4:9-11, putting Jehovah to the test or JESUS to the test?

Answer: Jesus answered the Devil through Scriptures. His statement, “You shall not put Jehovah your God to the test” was taken from Deuteronomy 6:16. Jesus was being tested as well as Jehovah to send angels to save Jesus if he will let himself fall. If Jesus is God then why Satan aren’t aware that he was speaking to his Grand Creator? Why did he ask Jesus “if you were the son of God” and not “if you were God”? Could Satan ask Jesus to bow on him if Jesus was really God? Can the grand creator bow on his creature? He asked these tests to Jesus because he knew he is the son of God and he just wanted to deceive Jesus through these tests to show how loyal and faithful Jesus is to Jehovah God. It is very impossible to ask from the Creator to bow himself to a creature.

Question: The Bible says that ONLY God is our savior (Hos 13:4, Isa 43:11,45:21, etc.). How can it be then, that the Bible repeatedly says that Jesus Christ is our savior (Lk 2:11, Phil 3:20, Tit 2:13, 3:6, 2Pet 1:1, 2:20, 3:18, etc.)?

Answer: Just as there are some people in the Bible that speaks as they are saviors of men [like Othniel in Judges 3:9 and among others]but it must not to conclude that they are Jehovah; that Nabucodonosor was even called the king of all kings in Daniel 2:37 but he was not to conclude that he was Jesus; that the Christians are also called “light of the nations” (Matthew 5:14; Acts 13:47) but they are not Jesus who is called the “light of the nations” (John 8:12). Also it refers to spiritual Israel of God or the Christians (Isaiah 49:6; see verse 3). Therefore, it is not to conclude that since Jehovah is called Mighty God then he is also Jesus who is also called Mighty God. Why Jesus never called as Almighty God just like Jehovah is called as that? – Genesis 17:1; Revelation 16:7. (Compare 1 John 4:14 and 1 Timothy 2:5 and Galatians 3:20)

Question: Referring to Isa 14:9-17, if there is no conscious awareness after death, how could Sheol “… become agitated at you in order to meet you on coming in…” (v.9), how could the souls in Sheol “… speak up and say to you…” (v.10-11), how could the souls in Sheol when “…seeing you will gaze even at you; they will give close examination even to you, [saying,] ‘Is this the man’…” (v. 16-17), and how would you be aware that this was happening?

Answer: Sheol is not person so how come could it speak? Therefore, the soul in the sheol are only representation of those who are coming in Sheol. It is common in the Scriptures about describing something as being a person. For example, wisdom is said to have “children” (Luke 7:35). The sin and death were called as being “kings” (Romans 5:14, 21). In 1 John 5:6 – 8, it is not only the spirit that witness but also the “blood and water”. Therefore, it is not valid to say that soul is literally alive person after one dies. It is a metaphor of those people who are in Sheol and a personification of the Sheol. It was given life to give spiritual meaning of death.

Question: Heb 3:1 refers to “holy brothers, partakers of the heavenly calling”. In Mk 3:35, Jesus says, “Whoever does the will of God, this one is my brother …”. Therefore, according to the Bible, whoever does the will of God is a brother of Jesus and a partaker of the heavenly calling. How can this be if the Watchtower Society teaches that only 144,000 people go to heaven?

Answer: See this link for discussion of this subject:

http://fromthesunrising.wordpress.com/2010/11/03/future-rulers-of-the-world-who-are-they/

Question: Heb 11:16, in speaking about some of the faithful people of the Old Testament (Abel, Noah, Abraham, etc.) says, “But now they are reaching out for a better [place], that is, one belonging to heaven…” and, “… their God for he has made a city ready for them.” The footnote on the word “city” refers to HEAVENLY Jerusalem of Heb 12:22 and Rev 21:2. How can this be since according to the teachings of the Watchtower Society, the only people who will go to heaven are the 144,000 spirit anointed who have been chosen from people who lived after Christ died?

Answer: http://fromthesunrising.wordpress.com/2010/11/03/the-144000-and-the-future-earthly-human-beings/

Question: Rev 20:10 says, “And the Devil … the wild beast and the false prophet [already were]; and they will be tormented day and night forever and ever.” Where will the devil, the wild beast, and the false prophet be “tormented day and night forever and ever”?

Answer: Answer: Fire and sulphur is used in the Bible as a symbol for destruction just as stated in Isaiah 34:9, 10 and Judas 7. Here, the places were destroyed by literal fire yet the fire does not exist anymore. Notice Jesus was also been placed in Hades which is translated by some Bible versions as hell (Acts 2:31) and this Hades was also used by Jesus in his illustration to a rich man who is suffering from literal fire which is described as Hades (Luke 16:23 – 24) yet this Hades was described in Revelation 20:13, 14 that will give out its dead (those who died before) thus it means they will be resurrected just as Jesus was raised from the dead in Hades. Also in Job 14:13, Job prayed to let him be in “Sheol” (AS, RS, NE, JB, NW) or “hell” (Challoner-Douay Version). 

See the following links: http://www.watchtower.org/e/20040401/article_02.htm

http://fromthesunrising.wordpress.com/2010/10/28/the-truth-about-soul-and-hell/

Question: In Lk 24:36-39 and in Jn 20:26-27, Jesus showed his disciples the wounds in his body as proof of his resurrection. If Jesus’ body had been destroyed by God after he died, how could Jesus show the disciples his body which had the wounds in his hands, feet, and side and claim that he is not just a spirit, “because a spirit does not have flesh and bones just as you behold that I have” (Lk 24:39)?

Answer: It is because Jesus can transform already into human flesh when he was resurrected just like the angels can transform into human flesh. How could he enter in the closed door if he is only human?  (John 20:26) Jesus was resurrected as spirit and was resurrected by God (1 Peter 3:18; Colossians 2:12; Acts 2:24)

Question: If Christ was created by God and was the wisdom of God (Prov 8:1-4, 12, 22-31), then before Jesus would have been created, God would have had to have been without wisdom. How is it possible that God could have ever been without wisdom?

Answer: Jesus is a personification of the word “Wisdom” but it doesn’t mean that this wisdom [Jesus] is the wisdom of God. Jehovah gave wisdom and spirit to Jesus. Jesus is only the exact representation of God (Hebrews 1:3). He is just part or the concrete product of the wisdom of God for he was created by God (Colossians 1:15; Revelation 3:14).

For additional discussion see these links:

Does “Wisdom” at Prov. 8:22-30 refer to the Messiah, and does it say that he was created?

Prov. 8:22-30 “Wisdom” and Christ

Question: Rev 7:11 says that “before the throne” is in heaven where “all the angels were standing”. Rev 14:2-3 says “And I heard a sound out of heaven … And they were singing as if a new song before the throne …”. Rev 7:9 says, “… look, a great crowd … standing before the throne…”. Rev 7:14-15 says, “…There are the ones that come out of the great tribulation … That is why they are before the throne of God …”. Therefore, if “before the throne ” means in heaven (Rev 7:11, 14:2-3), and the “great crowd” is “before the throne” (Rev 7:9, 7:14-15), where does that mean that the great crowd will be?

Answer: See this link http://fromthesunrising.wordpress.com/2010/11/03/the-144000-and-the-future-earthly-human-beings/

Question: If Jesus Christ is Michael theArchangel, how can Mt 25:31 say, “When the Son of man arrives in his glory, and ALL the angels with him, …”. Since “all the angels” would certainly include Michael theArchangel, is it possible that Jesus could return with himself?

Answer: http://fromthesunrising.wordpress.com/2010/12/08/jesus-as-michael-the-archangel/

Question: In Lk 20:37-38, how could Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob be “all living to him (God)”, since they all died hundreds of years before Jesus said this?

Answer: The words should not be taken literally, for if it is literally then it would violate the statements in John 3:13 (therefore Jesus is the first one resurrected and went into heaven); 1 Corinthians 15:23 and Revelation 6:9 – 10 and Revelation 20:4 – 6). Therefore, what this text mean is that all of them even they are dead already are still alive in the memory of God. They are in the memory of God and are to be resurrected at the right time.

Question: If the soul dies when the body dies, how could the “souls” of Rev 6:9- 11, who were of those who had been “slaughtered” (i.e., killed), cry out “with a loud voice, saying: ‘Until when Sovereign Lord …”?

Answer: It is because the soul means a person who is living. It was used to God’s people since they have died but they were resurrected at the time of invisible presence of Jesus on earth (see 1 Corinthians 15:23 and Daniel 2:44 as the beginning of the time of the invisible presence of Jesus).

Question: Is it wrong for a woman to have a short hair and wear pants?

Answer:  See this link for discussion of this matter:  http://www.jw-archive.org/2011/08/i-never-knew-this-was-reason-sisters.html

Question: If the soul dies when the body dies, how could the “souls” of Rev 6:9- 11, who were of those who had been “slaughtered” (i.e., killed), cry out “with a loud voice, saying: ‘Until when Sovereign Lord …”?

Answer: It is because the soul means a person who is living (http://www.watchtower.org/e/bh/appendix_07.htm). It was used to God’s people since they have died but they were resurrected at the time of invisible presence of Jesus on earth (see 1 Corinthians 15:23 and Daniel 2:44 as the beginning of the time of the invisible presence of Jesus). See this link for deeper explanation. (http://www.jw-archive.org/2010/12/psyche-soul-response-to-accusations.html)

If the human soul IS the person, how could the soul go out of a person (Gen 35:18) or come back into a person (1Kings 17:21)?

Answer: It is because the “soul” also mean “life” (see Greek-English Interlinear of Matthew 16:25, 26; John 10:15, 17). Therefore the soul goes out of the body in Genesis 35:18 and come back into a person in 1 Kings 17:21 is the life itself. See the explanations above.

Question: The Watchtower Society teaches that the earth will never be destroyed or depopulated. How can it be, then, that God says in Isa 51:6, “… the earth itself will wear out, and its inhabitants will die like a mere gnat …”, and that Jesus says in Mt 24:35, “Heaven and earth will pass away…”, and that John says in Rev 21:1 that he saw “… a new heaven and a NEW earth, for the former heaven and the FORMER earth had passed away, and the sea is no more.”?

Answer: The earth itself will wear out indicate that the whole earth is subject to punishment but this does not indicate the earth will be destroyed. Psalms 37:9-11, 29 says that the earth will stay forever and Proverbs 2:21, 22 states that the righteous will remain on earth but the wicked will be uprooted out of the earth. Matthew 5:5 states by Jesus that the meek will inherit the earth. It says that the earth melt when the earth was punished by God yet it was not totally destroyed see this interlinear (http://interlinearbible.org/psalms/75-3.htm). The former earth means the former system of life on earth which includes the unrighteousness of the people on earth but not definitely the earth. See this blog about new earth. http://fromthesunrising.wordpress.com/2011/01/13/heaven-and-earth-will-pass-away-%E2%80%93-what-does-it-implies-reedited/

Psalms 75:2 “For I proceeded to take a set time;
I myself began judging with uprightness.

The earth and all its inhabitants being dissolved,
It was I that adjusted its pillars. – NWT

Psalms 75:2“When I select an appointed time,
It is I who judge with equity.
3The earth and all who dwell in it [a]melt;
It is I who have firmly set its pillars. – NASB

 

to be continued . . .

 

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One Response to “A CALL FOR SPIRITUAL ENLIGHTENMENT (IN DEFENSE OF JW BELIEFS)”

  1. INDEX OF LINKS OF WATCHTOWER AND OTHERS « Fromthesunrising's Blog Says:

    […] https://fromthesunrising2.wordpress.com/2011/06/25/a-call-for-spiritual-enlightenment-in-defense-of-j… […]

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